Isn’t is a CRIME to record conversations between two people without the permission of BOTH parties to the conversation? How is it not also a crime to “wiretap” one party and record their conversations with a second party who is NOT the subject of the wiretap? Didn’t they try to PROSECUTE someone for that during the Clinton scandal in 1998?
Now you’re moving the goalpost.
Was the question “was Trump under surveillance” as he claims?
The incidental collection, right or wrong, is different than what he claimed which that he (ostensibly) was the subject of the surveillance. We know there is no evidence to that end.
As far as incidental collection, to my knowledge, there is no evidence at this point of that either, though I admit it’s hard to imagine he wasn’t caught up in it.
As far as the legality of it, if you know something I don’t, by all means, share!!